Quoting from [import ant]:
I understand the US Dollar transfers ALWAYS go through US banks and thererfore always will be short on the receivers (Sellers) side.
Are these transfer fees usually considered the receiver's problem if not specified? Or does the receiver expect his bank to receive 100% of the value and he only pays his direct banking fees??
The supplier will expect 100% payment unless as you say it is specified. It is the cost of doing business. In some cases where L/C is used and depending on the proforma terms of the supplier if an in country intermediary must be used the supplier will pay this fee as well.